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Cisco Discovery 1: DHomesb Chapter 7 toets antwoorden / DHomesb exam 7 answers

Thứ Tư, 11 tháng 1, 2012

Networking for Home and Small Businesses Version 4.0 English

 
DHomesb Chapter 7 Exam Answers


Q.1.  Why is IEEE 802.11 wireless technology able to transmit further distances than Bluetooth technology?
• transmits at much lower frequencies
• has higher power output
• transmits at much higher frequencies
• uses better encryption methods

Q.2. What are three advantages of wireless over wired technology? (Choose three.)
• more secure
• longer range
• anytime, anywhere connectivity
• easy and inexpensive to install
• ease of using licensed air space
• ease of adding additional devices

Q.3. What are two benefits of wireless networking over wired networking? (Choose two.)
• speed
• security
• mobility
• reduced installation time
• allows users to share more resources
• not susceptible to interference from other devices


Q.4. A technician has been asked to provide wireless connectivity to the wired Ethernet network of a building. Which three factors affect the number of access points needed? (Choose three.)
• the size of the building
• the number of solid interior walls in the building
• the presence of microwave ovens in several offices
• the encryption method used on the wireless network
• the use of both Windows and Appletalk operating systems
• the use of shortwave or infrared on the AP

Q.5. Why is security so important in wireless networks?
• Wireless networks are typically slower than wired networks.
• Televisions and other devices can interfere with wireless signals.
• Wireless networks broadcast data over a medium that allows easy access.
• Environmental factors such as thunderstorms can affect wireless networks.

Q.6. What does the Wi-Fi logo indicate about a wireless device?
• IEEE has approved the device.
• The device is interoperable with all other wireless standards.
• The device is interoperable with other devices of the same standard that also display the Wi-Fi logo.
• The device is backwards compatible with all previous wireless standards.

Q.7. Which statement is true concerning wireless bridges?
• connects two networks with a wireless link
• stationary device that connects to a wireless LAN
• allows wireless clients to connect to a wired network
• increases the strength of a wireless signal

Q.8. Which WLAN component is commonly referred to as an STA?
• cell
• antenna
• access point
• wireless bridge
• wireless client

Q.9. Which statement is true concerning an ad-hoc wireless network?
• created by connecting wireless clients in a peer-to-peer network
• created by connecting wireless clients to a single, centralized AP
• created by connecting multiple wireless basic service sets through a distribution system
• created by connecting wireless clients to a wired network using an ISR



Q.10. Refer to the graphic. In the Wireless menu option of a Linksys integrated router, what does the Network Mode option Mixed mean?
• The router supports encryption and authentication.
• The router supports both wired and wireless connections.
• The router supports 802.11b, 802.11g, and 802.11n devices.
• The router supports connectivity through infrared and radio frequencies





Q.11. Refer to the graphic. In the Wireless menu of a Linksys integrated router, what configuration option allows the presence of the access point to be known to nearby clients?
• Network Mode
• Network Name (SSID)
• Radio Band
• Wide Channel
• Standard Channel
• SSID Broadcast


Q.12. Which two statements about a service set identifier (SSID) are true? (Choose two.)
• tells a wireless device to which WLAN it belongs
• consists of a 32-character string and is not case sensitive
• responsible for determining the signal strength
• all wireless devices on the same WLAN must have the same SSID
• used to encrypt data sent across the wireless network


Q.13. Which two statements characterize wireless network security? (Choose two.)
• Wireless networks offer the same security features as wired networks.
• Wardriving enhances security of wireless networks.
• With SSID broadcast disabled, an attacker must know the SSID to connect.
• Using the default IP address on an access point makes hacking easier.
• An attacker needs physical access to at least one network device to launch an attack.
Q.14. What type of authentication does an access point use by default?
• Open
• PSK
• WEP
• EAP


Q.15. Which statement is true about open authentication when it is enabled on an access point?
• requires no authentication
• uses a 64-bit encryption algorithm
• requires the use of an authentication server
• requires a mutually agreed upon password


Q.16. What are two authentication methods that an access point could use? (Choose two.)
• WEP
• WPA
• EAP
• ASCII
• pre-shared keys


Q.17. What is the difference between using open authentication and pre-shared keys?
• Open authentication requires a password. Pre-shared keys do not require a password.
• Open authentication is used with wireless networks. Pre-shared keys are used with wired networks.
• Pre-shared keys require an encrypted secret word. Open authentication does not require a secret word.
• Pre-shared keys require a MAC address programmed into the access point. Open authentication does not require this programming.


Q.18. What term describes the encoding of wireless data to prevent intercepted data from being read by a hacker?
• address filtering
• authentication
• broadcasting
• encryption
• passphrase encoding 


Q.19. What access-point feature allows a network administrator to define what type of data can enter the wireless network?
• encryption
• hacking block
• traffic filtering
• MAC address filtering
• authentication


Q.20. What are the two WEP key lengths? (Choose two.)
• 8 bit
• 16 bit
• 32 bit
• 64 bit
• 128 bit


Q.21. Complete the following sentence: WEP is used to ______ , and EAP is used to _____ wireless networks.
• encrypt; authenticate users on
• filter traffic; select the operating frequency for
• identify the wireless network; compress data on
• create the smallest wireless network; limit the number of users on
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Cisco Discovery 1: DHomesb Chapter 6 toets antwoorden / DHomesb exam 6 answers

Thứ Tư, 11 tháng 1, 2012


Networking for Home and Small Businesses Version 4.0 English
DHomesb Chapter 6 Exam Answers
Q.1. A user types www.cisco.com into a web browser address textbox. What does www.cisco.com represent?
• the IP address of a web server
• a physical network address
• the closest router interface to the source
• the source IP address in the data transmission

Q.2. What type of server would use IMAP?
• DNS
• DHCP
• e-mail
• FTP
• Telnet
• web

Q.3. Which type of server would most likely be used first by a network client in a corporate environment?
• DNS
• DHCP
• e-mail
• FTP
• Telnet
• web

Q.4. Which protocol is used by FTP to transfer files over the Internet?
• TCP
• SMTP
• UDP
• SNMP

Q.5. Which protocols are TCP/IP application layer protocols? (Choose two.)
• UDP
• FTP
• IP
• SMTP
• TCP

Q.6. Which of the following are layers of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)
• Application
• Physical
• Internet
• Network Access

• Presentation

Q.7. You are creating a network-based video game. What influences your decision about which transport protocol to use for the application?
• UDP will not disrupt the game to retransmit dropped packets.
• TCP provides extra acknowledgements that will ensure smooth video delivery.
• Both TCP and UDP can be used simultaneously to ensure speed and guaranteed delivery.
• Both TCP and UDP may slow transmission and disrupt game operation, so no transport protocol should be used.


Q.8. Whenever e-mail clients send letters, what device is used to translate the domain names into their associated IP addresses?
• Uniform Resource Locator
• Network redirector server
• SNMP server
• DNS server

Q.9. Which application is most likely used to translate www.cisco.com to 198.133.219.25?
• DHCP
• DNS
• FTP
• HTTP
• POP
• SMTP 



Q.10. Refer to the graphic. Which protocol is used to access this website?
• IM
• FTP
• HTTP
• SNMP
• VoIP 


Q.11. Which port number is used by SMTP?
• 20
• 21
• 25
• 26
• 110

Q.12. Which protocol is used by e-mail servers to communicate with each other?
• FTP
• HTTP
• TFTP
• SMTP
• POP
• SNMP

Q.13. What client software enables logged in users to communicate with other logged in users in real time?
• blog
• e-mail
• web mail
• instant messaging

Q.14. An Internet server is running both FTP and HTTP services. How does the server know which of these applications should handle an incoming segment?
• The packet header identifies it as an HTTP or FTP packet.
• The data in the segment is specially formatted for either HTTP or FTP.
• The segment destination port number identifies the application that should handle it.
• The source port number is associated with one of these well known server applications.


Q.15. What term is used to describe how TCP/IP protocols are layered and interact to format, address, and transmit information across a network?
• protocol hierarchy
• protocol modeling
• protocol stack
• protocol layering


Q.16. What three items are contained in an Ethernet frame? (Choose three.)
• source IP address
• source MAC address
• destination IP address
• destination MAC address
• error-checking information


Q.17. What information is contained in an IP header?
• source and destination IP addresses
• source and destination MAC addresses
• only destination IP and MAC addresses
• both source and destination IP and MAC addresses

Q.18. Cabling issues are associated with which OSI layer?
• 4
• 2
• 1
• 3

Q.19. A device receives an Ethernet frame and recognizes the MAC address as its own. What does the device do to the message to get to the encapsulated data?
• removes the IP header
• removes the TCP header
• passes data to the application layer
• removes the Ethernet header and trailer

Q.20. A client has decoded a frame and started the de-encapsulation process. In which order does the de-encapsulation process occur?
• 1) remove IP header
   2) remove Ethernet header and trailer 
   3) remove TCP header
   4) pass data to the application
• 1) add TCP header to data
   2) add an IP header
   3) add frame header and trailer
   4) encode the frame into bits
• 1) remove Ethernet header and trailer
   2) remove IP header
   3) remove TCP header
   4) pass data to the application

• 1) add TCP header to data
   2) add Ethernet header and trailer
   3) add an IP header
   4) encode the frame into bits


Q.21. What is an advantage of the use of layers in the OSI reference model?
• It breaks network communications into larger parts.
• It increases complexity.
• It prevents changes in one layer from affecting other layers.
• It requires the use of single-vendor equipment for hardware and software communications.

Q.22. What is the correct order of the layers of the OSI reference model, starting at the lowest layer and working up the model?
• data link, physical, transport, network, presentation, session, application
• physical, data link, network, session, transport, presentation, application
• physical, data link, network, transport, presentation, session, application
• physical, data link, network, transport, session, presentation, application
• application, session, presentation, transport, data link, network, physical
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Cisco Discovery 1: DHomesb Chapter 4 toets antwoorden / DHomesb exam 4 answers

Thứ Tư, 11 tháng 1, 2012

DHomesb Chapter 4 Exam Answers


Q.1. Which definition describes the term Internet?
• a group of PCs connected together on a LAN 
• a group of PCs connected together by an ISP
• a network of networks that connects countries around the world 
• a worldwide collection of networks controlled by a single organization

Q.2. What type of connection point is a point of presence (POP)?
• between a client and a host 
• between two local networks 
• between a computer and a switch

• between an ISP and a home-based LAN 

Q.3. What is the term for the group of high-speed data links that interconnect ISPs?

• Internet LAN 
• ISP backbone 
• Internet gateways 
• Internet providers

• Internet backbone 

Q.4. Which device can act as a router, switch, and wireless access point in one package?

• hub 
• bridge 
• modem 
• repeater

• ISR
 
Q.5. What are three characteristics of business class ISP service? (Choose three.) 
• fast connections 
• extra web space
 
• free Windows upgrade 
• cheapest cost available to all users
• additional e-mail accounts 
• replacement hardware at no cost 

Q.6. What is a major characteristic of asymmetric Internet service?

• Download speeds and upload speeds are equal. 
• Download speeds are slower than upload speeds

• Upload speeds and download speeds are different. 
• Upload speeds and download speeds are irrelevant. 

Q.7. Which three elements are required to successfully connect to the Internet? (Choose three.)

• an IP address 
• file sharing enabled

• a network connection 
• server services enabled

• access to an Internet service provider 
• an address obtained directly from the RIR 



Q.8. What term describes each router through which a packet travels when moving between source and destination networks?

• NOC 
• ISP

• hop 
• segment 

Q.9. What does the tracert command test?

• NIC functionality 
• the ISP bandwidth

• the network path to a destination 
• the destination application functionality
 

Q.10. What type of end-user connectivity requires that an ISP have a DSLAM device in their network?
• analog technology 
• cable modem technology

• digital subscriber line technology 
• wireless technology 

Q.11. Why would an ISP require a CMTS device on their network?
• to connect end users using cable technology 
• to connect end users using analog technology 
• to connect end users using wireless technology 
• to connect end users using digital subscriber line technology


Q.12. Refer to the graphic. What type of cabling is shown?
• STP 
• UTP 
• coax

• fiber 


Q.13. Refer to the graphic. What type of cabling is shown?

• STP
• UTP 
• coax 
• fiber 

Q.14. Which two places are most appropriate to use UTP cabling? (Choose two.)

• between buildings
• in a home office network 
• where EMI is an issue 
• in a cable TV network
• inside a school building 
• in a manufacturing environment with hundreds of electrical devices


Q.15. What does adherence to cabling standards ensure?
• data security 
• no loss of signal 
• no electromagnetic interference

• reliable data communications 



Q.16. Refer to the graphic. What type of cable is shown?

• crossover 
• eight coax channels 
• multimode fiber 
• single-mode fiber 
• straight-through 

Q.17. What connector is used to terminate Ethernet unshielded twisted pair (UTP) cabling?

• ST 
• BNC 
• RJ-11

• RJ-45 

Q.18. Which two characteristics describe copper patch panels? (Choose two.)

• uses RJ-11 jacks
• uses RJ-45 jacks 
• supports only data transmissions

• allows quick rearrangements of network connections 
• forwards transmissions based on MAC addresses 

Q.19. What are two advantages of cable management? (Choose two.)

• requires no preplanning
• aids in isolation of cabling problems 
• protects cables from physical damage
 
• provides compliance with future standards 
• provides a short-term solution for cable installation


 Q.20. What are two common causes of signal degradation when using UTP cabling? (Choose two.)
• installing cables in conduit
• having improper termination 
• losing light over long distances 

• installing low quality cable shielding
• using low quality cables or connectors 

Q.21. What are three commonly followed standards for constructing and installing cabling? (Choose three.)
• pinouts 
• cable lengths
 
• connector color 

• connector types 
• cost per meter (foot) 
• tensile strength of plastic insulator

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